JW Insider

A royal three course meal - fish, then Passover lamb, dessert and coffee

I am sure that if you keep it civil and not just use your post to get at the GB, the librarian will not mind.  We will not mind either.  We like to have new thoughts.

My discernment is that Jesus had not need for any purification or any added symbolism regarding his death - the "sign" of Jonah was a "sign" not an exact replication - Jesus was not in a fish for three days.  We do not want the superstition of the Jews who find numerology in almost anything to overwhelm us.  We then lose the purpose of the illustration/sign and meaning of his death.
All the symbolism about the death of Jesus is found in Hebrews. How he replaced the Passover lamb, being High priest of the new covenant; his flesh died and was disposed of by Jehovah (curtain of the Most holy) tore,  and so forth.

Yes -  I do see the pattern of the purification and cleansing of the number 40.  It rained 40 days and nights to clean the earth during the flood ... and there are many other examples. ......BUT..... Jesus was perfect - he needed no cleansing or purification. .
1 peter 2: 22 " 22  He committed no sin,o nor was deception found in his mouth."

Nowhere does it say it is exactly 72 hours.  It would have been more accurate to say 72 hours if God meant exactly 72 hours.  So they could have thrown him onto the sea very late late night of first day  (which fits in with Jewish day which starts at sundown), and shortly after the third night when daylight came - spewed him on dry land.....  did not think this through but just an idea.  
Jesus also spoke of the SIGN of Jonah.  A sign is not literal but an indication of something.  So we do not expect literal 3 days and nights but FOCUS on the SIGN..... just as the budding of the first flowers on trees is a sign that spring is arriving.  
The focus of all of this is the sign and the fact that Jesus died.  The other additional things are the side events.
 

No. Because the night on the third day would not have been completed before dawn of that second day.
If someone dies on Friday afternoon and they are buried that Friday night, then the night of the first day is completed on Saturday. The night of the second day is therefore begun on the next night, Saturday night, and completed on the dawn of that second day which is Sunday morning. The night of the third day, would have been completed, therefore on Monday morning.
This is true even in our current conception of when a day begins, but would have been even clearer with the Jewish conception of when a day began, because their day started with nightfall.
You can begin the start of his judgment then if you wish, but the sign of Jonah was that he was in "Sheol" for three days and three nights. Christians saw no need to take this to any kind of literal count of hours. The very fact that it could apply when Jesus may have been in Sheol for only two nights is good evidence that there was no good reason to try to count the exact hours to make something spiritually significant out of them.

No. Because the night on the third day would not have been completed before dawn of that second day.
If someone dies on Friday afternoon and they are buried that Friday night, then the night of the first day is completed on Saturday. The night of the second day is therefore begun on the next night, Saturday night, and completed on the dawn of that second day which is Sunday morning. The night of the third day, would have been completed, therefore on Monday morning.
This is true even in our current conception of when a day begins, but would have been even clearer with the Jewish conception of when a day began, because their day started with nightfall.
You can begin the start of his judgment then if you wish, but the sign of Jonah was that he was in "Sheol" for three days and three nights. Christians saw no need to take this to any kind of literal count of hours. The very fact that it could apply when Jesus may have been in Sheol for only two nights is good evidence that there was no good reason to try to count the exact hours to make something spiritually significant out of them.

The Bible does not say that Jesus was resurrected at dawn. It says that the women came to the tomb just before or just after dawn, while it was still dark, and found that the stone had already been rolled away. So the resurrection could have taken place at any time during that night. So instead of 12 hours by 7am it could have been as few as 1 or 2 hours, or perhaps 10pm that night, or midnight, or 2am or 4am or 5am. All we know for sure is that it happened BEFORE dawn not "AT dawn" as you claim.
Also, Nisan 16 can be as early in the year as March 22, and as late as April 23. So sunrise/dawn can be as early as 6:04am on April 23 or as late as 6:55am on March 22. Anywhere within In any time zone in the world, that's nearly a full hour's difference. In other words, even if we knew for sure that the women had actually just got there at the time of the resurrection, you would still be guessing if you claim that dawn was at 7:00am when it could have been at 6:00am.
Personally, I think the Bible writers are implying that it was close to dawn, but perhaps at a time during the night when guards would have potentially been sleeping. Later Christian tradition has the guards waking up their centurion and others to tell them the "bad" news, which doesn't mean much on its own, except that it shows no evidence of a 40-hour tradition here or in any early commentary. This, in spite of the fact, that there was a 40-day tradition about the temptation and the ascension. Surely if a 40 hour tradition was going to be of any import to "spiritual discernment" then the Bible would have given specific evidence that it was 40 hours, and not somewhere between about a 29-hour minimum and a 39-hour maximum.
With respect to this time period, the only tradition that we know that the early Christians held onto was the idea that it was like the sign of Jonah which was parts of 3 days and 3 nights. Unfortunately you can't translate 3 days and 3 nights to less than about 60 hours or more than about 72 hours. This is probably why some early Christian traditions start Jesus' death on Wednesday or Thursday (Nisan 13), and some say this is also a potential interpretation reflected in the Bible accounts.

No. Because the night on the third day would not have been completed before dawn of that second day.
If someone dies on Friday afternoon and they are buried that Friday night, then the night of the first day is completed on Saturday. The night of the second day is therefore begun on the next night, Saturday night, and completed on the dawn of that second day which is Sunday morning. The night of the third day, would have been completed, therefore on Monday morning.
This is true even in our current conception of when a day begins, but would have been even clearer with the Jewish conception of when a day began, because their day started with nightfall.
You can begin the start of his judgment then if you wish, but the sign of Jonah was that he was in "Sheol" for three days and three nights. Christians saw no need to take this to any kind of literal count of hours. The very fact that it could apply when Jesus may have been in Sheol for only two nights is good evidence that there was no good reason to try to count the exact hours to make something spiritually significant out of them.

The Bible does not say that Jesus was resurrected at dawn. It says that the women came to the tomb just before or just after dawn, while it was still dark, and found that the stone had already been rolled away. So the resurrection could have taken place at any time during that night. So instead of 12 hours by 7am it could have been as few as 1 or 2 hours, or perhaps 10pm that night, or midnight, or 2am or 4am or 5am. All we know for sure is that it happened BEFORE dawn not "AT dawn" as you claim.
Also, Nisan 16 can be as early in the year as March 22, and as late as April 23. So sunrise/dawn can be as early as 6:04am on April 23 or as late as 6:55am on March 22. Anywhere within In any time zone in the world, that's nearly a full hour's difference. In other words, even if we knew for sure that the women had actually just got there at the time of the resurrection, you would still be guessing if you claim that dawn was at 7:00am when it could have been at 6:00am.
Personally, I think the Bible writers are implying that it was close to dawn, but perhaps at a time during the night when guards would have potentially been sleeping. Later Christian tradition has the guards waking up their centurion and others to tell them the "bad" news, which doesn't mean much on its own, except that it shows no evidence of a 40-hour tradition here or in any early commentary. This, in spite of the fact, that there was a 40-day tradition about the temptation and the ascension. Surely if a 40 hour tradition was going to be of any import to "spiritual discernment" then the Bible would have given specific evidence that it was 40 hours, and not somewhere between about a 29-hour minimum and a 39-hour maximum.
With respect to this time period, the only tradition that we know that the early Christians held onto was the idea that it was like the sign of Jonah which was parts of 3 days and 3 nights. Unfortunately you can't translate 3 days and 3 nights to less than about 60 hours or more than about 72 hours. This is probably why some early Christian traditions start Jesus' death on Wednesday or Thursday (Nisan 13), and some say this is also a potential interpretation reflected in the Bible accounts.

Please explain the difference between the first part of that scripture and the second part. After all there is an "AND" between the two parts so we should be able to understand both the first portion AND the second portion.
The first part says that one day with Jehovah is as a thousand years. That should be pretty easy. It would mean that one 24-hour day to a man is like 1000-years with Jehovah. Obviously it doesn't mean that Jehovah is 365,000 times slower than humans (as some people consider slowness). Perhaps it could imply that Jehovah can easily manage 1,000 years worth of heavenly accomplishments in a human's 24-hour period of earthly doings.
Then the second part seems to say the opposite: that 1,000 years of human, earthly doings is like only one day to Jehovah. It's mostly the second part of the verse that Peter is apparently using to show why that final judgment parousia had not begun yet, and why people were already, in those last days, ridiculing the parousia expectations during that first century.
But when we take both those ideas together, we see that it is really saying that Jehovah is outside of human time restrictions. It's not about giving us a formula that only relies on the second part of the verse. We can't just select only the part that seems useful to our theories. We have to take the whole Bible, where both these statements are true:
24 hours seems like 1,000 years to Jehovah   (1:365,000) 1,000 years seems like 24 hours to Jehovah   (365,000:1)

I agree, generally. You can't know for sure that it was exactly 40, since the Bible doesn't tell us. It could have been just those 4.5 hrs (Fri) + 24 hrs (Sat) + 0.5 hrs on Sunday, or as many as 11 hours on Sunday. That leaves a range of 29 hours up to a maximum of 39.5. So I agree that 40 might be the maximum, outside possibility that the synoptics would allow for. And that's where I got the "1.64 days" [max] altogether, similar to your number, less than two days.
You apparently stake quite a lot on the idea that Jesus was dead for exactly 40 hours even though the Bible gives us a range that apparently runs from about 29 hours minimum to 39.5 hours, maximum. I would agree that 40 is an outside possibility, but my point was trying to show that we can't be exact where the Bible is not exact.
And yet, you go so far as to imply that all can be lost, like Satan, if one doesn't accept the meaning of "40" and the fact of Jesus being dead for exactly 40 hours.
More speculation on your part. How do you know that Satan thought a day to Jehovah was 24 hours. Satan seems to be taking advantage of the idea that he knew it would not be within 24 hours that Adam would die. Besides, the Watchtower once taught that a "day" with Jehovah could have been 42,000 years long, since Genesis 2:4 refers to all 6 creative days as a single day, and we used to teach that each creative day must have been 7,000 years long (6x7,000=42,000).
*** it-1 p. 594 Day ***
The entire period of the six time units or creative “days” dedicated to the preparation of planet Earth is summed up in one all-embracing “day” at Genesis 2:4:
(Genesis 2:4) This is a history of the heavens and the earth in the time they were created, in the day that Jehovah God made earth and heaven.
So, for all you know, Satan thought that a day to Jehovah was 42,000 years long, or at least 7,000! Where would Satan have gotten the idea that a day to Jehovah is only 1,000 years, or as you say, only 24 hours??
Somehow, you don't make it sound like your "ministry" is based on faith in God and love of God and neighbor. By going through the machinations to calculate the number of hours Jesus might have been dead, I was hoping you would catch on that this is all just pure speculation and has nothing to do with the Christian objective:
(1 Timothy 1:4-7) . . .Such things end up in nothing useful but merely give rise to speculations rather than providing anything from God in connection with faith. 5 Really, the objective of this instruction is love out of a clean heart and out of a good conscience and out of faith without hypocrisy. 6 By deviating from these things, some have been turned aside to meaningless talk. 7 They want to be teachers of law, but they do not understand either the things they are saying or the things they insist on so strongly.

If we use Matthew, Mark, Luke (but not John) we see that Jesus died around 3pm on Friday, just before Sabbath, which would have started around 7:30pm close to Nisan 14. (The Jewish calendar, as you know, starts the new day at sundown.) Jesus remained in the grave the entire Sabbath day (Saturday), and sometime Sunday morning, the women came to the grave and found the body missing, signifying that Jesus had already been raised up.
At a minimum, therefore, Jesus had therefore been dead for at least 4.5 hours on Friday. Then then entire 24 hours on Saturday. And anywhere from 0 hours to 11 hours on Sunday. Assuming he had been raised during the night watch, or no later than around 6am on Sunday when the women came to the grave. (7:30pm to 6:30am is 11 hours). If we assume, for argument's sake, about half way into the overnight watch, then Jesus was raised around 1:30am.
So 4/24ths + 24/24ths +6/24 = 34/24ths. (=1+10/24ths) So Jesus was in the grave for around, we could guess, the equivalent of 1.4 days. If you decided to multiply that by 1000 years (per day) you would get only 1,400 years. If you tried to be accurate you could not get less than 1.1875days or 1,188 years and not more than 1.64 days or 1,640 years.
Of course, you are using Hosea to give you the excuse to round off all of this to two days. (So that you can add exactly 2,000 years to 33CE.) But the Greek Scriptures already round off the number of days to 3, since it was parts of 3 days (even if only a small part of Friday, and a small part of Sunday). This is why the parallel to Jonah was made (where Jonah was in the "grave" for three days). 
I don't see where you find the right to round off to two days in the "grave" if the Bible rounds to three days, and it was literally only about a day-and-a-half from 3pm Friday to 6am Sunday.
This whole thing reminds me of the assumption Russell once published, that because the Bible says Abraham's sacrifice of a bird was a "young bird" that the bird can be assumed to be "one year old" and he therefore it was turned into exactly 360 years, using a day for a year and multiplying the year times 360.
To me, all this seems like you are taking extreme liberties with statements of the Bible that have already been fulfilled, and you are trying to push another fulfillment onto them. I also agree with Arauna that the entire idea of using Jesus' death and resurrection to create a new prophecy does not seem correct. It seems presumptuous to base a prediction of a new prophecy onto one that the Bible says was fulfilled.

I agree, generally. You can't know for sure that it was exactly 40, since the Bible doesn't tell us. It could have been just those 4.5 hrs (Fri) + 24 hrs (Sat) + 0.5 hrs on Sunday, or as many as 11 hours on Sunday. That leaves a range of 29 hours up to a maximum of 39.5. So I agree that 40 might be the maximum, outside possibility that the synoptics would allow for. And that's where I got the "1.64 days" [max] altogether, similar to your number, less than two days.
You apparently stake quite a lot on the idea that Jesus was dead for exactly 40 hours even though the Bible gives us a range that apparently runs from about 29 hours minimum to 39.5 hours, maximum. I would agree that 40 is an outside possibility, but my point was trying to show that we can't be exact where the Bible is not exact.
And yet, you go so far as to imply that all can be lost, like Satan, if one doesn't accept the meaning of "40" and the fact of Jesus being dead for exactly 40 hours.
More speculation on your part. How do you know that Satan thought a day to Jehovah was 24 hours. Satan seems to be taking advantage of the idea that he knew it would not be within 24 hours that Adam would die. Besides, the Watchtower once taught that a "day" with Jehovah could have been 42,000 years long, since Genesis 2:4 refers to all 6 creative days as a single day, and we used to teach that each creative day must have been 7,000 years long (6x7,000=42,000).
*** it-1 p. 594 Day ***
The entire period of the six time units or creative “days” dedicated to the preparation of planet Earth is summed up in one all-embracing “day” at Genesis 2:4:
(Genesis 2:4) This is a history of the heavens and the earth in the time they were created, in the day that Jehovah God made earth and heaven.
So, for all you know, Satan thought that a day to Jehovah was 42,000 years long, or at least 7,000! Where would Satan have gotten the idea that a day to Jehovah is only 1,000 years, or as you say, only 24 hours??
Somehow, you don't make it sound like your "ministry" is based on faith in God and love of God and neighbor. By going through the machinations to calculate the number of hours Jesus might have been dead, I was hoping you would catch on that this is all just pure speculation and has nothing to do with the Christian objective:
(1 Timothy 1:4-7) . . .Such things end up in nothing useful but merely give rise to speculations rather than providing anything from God in connection with faith. 5 Really, the objective of this instruction is love out of a clean heart and out of a good conscience and out of faith without hypocrisy. 6 By deviating from these things, some have been turned aside to meaningless talk. 7 They want to be teachers of law, but they do not understand either the things they are saying or the things they insist on so strongly.

I appreciate that you finally fixed part of your mistake.
In the past few years you kept insisting that this quote about 1914 +120 years came from Russell himself. Later, you reworded slightly to make it look like it came from the beliefs of Russell himself. Now you finally admit above that it comes from the "International Bible Students Association." It doesn't of course. As I documented for you already, it's just a recent quote from a modern-day Russellite-styled "Bible Student" (not the IBSA) who still hopes to protect Russell's reputation against the  the failure of those old 1914 predictions.
The man you are quoting from is just another Internet forum contributor and writer, probably much like yourself, who would love to see that 1914 still has some specific significance to the "generation that will not pass away." I suspect that, like a lot of us, you see the folly of the word-game that some of the brothers (like Brother Splane) have begun playing with the multiple overlapping lifespans that make the length of that generation "fuzzy." You want to see 1914 become a clearer demarcation point that still plays a direct role in Bible prophecy.
Our publications admit that all the various teachings we had about the "generation" from 1879 to about 2009 were incorrect teachings. A lot of Witnesses I have talked to, still want those old statements to be correct, even if it means stretching things a bit. I still hear a Witness now and then say that there have been persons in Siberia that lived to be 120.
At least you are not emphasizing the possibility of a 120-year lifespan. I think a lot of Witnesses don't understand that by trying to hold to 1914 this way, they are really just making a mockery out of Jesus words. This idea that at least one person might have been born in 1914 and live to the year 2034 implies that Jesus was really saying something like this:
When you start to see all these things occurring, lift up your heads and rejoice, because all of you will be dead, except for maybe one of you. And if that one 120-year old person endures to the end, he will be saved. He will also be very thankful that the days of tribulation were cut short on account of the chosen one, him.

I agree, generally. You can't know for sure that it was exactly 40, since the Bible doesn't tell us. It could have been just those 4.5 hrs (Fri) + 24 hrs (Sat) + 0.5 hrs on Sunday, or as many as 11 hours on Sunday. That leaves a range of 29 hours up to a maximum of 39.5. So I agree that 40 might be the maximum, outside possibility that the synoptics would allow for. And that's where I got the "1.64 days" [max] altogether, similar to your number, less than two days.
You apparently stake quite a lot on the idea that Jesus was dead for exactly 40 hours even though the Bible gives us a range that apparently runs from about 29 hours minimum to 39.5 hours, maximum. I would agree that 40 is an outside possibility, but my point was trying to show that we can't be exact where the Bible is not exact.
And yet, you go so far as to imply that all can be lost, like Satan, if one doesn't accept the meaning of "40" and the fact of Jesus being dead for exactly 40 hours.
More speculation on your part. How do you know that Satan thought a day to Jehovah was 24 hours. Satan seems to be taking advantage of the idea that he knew it would not be within 24 hours that Adam would die. Besides, the Watchtower once taught that a "day" with Jehovah could have been 42,000 years long, since Genesis 2:4 refers to all 6 creative days as a single day, and we used to teach that each creative day must have been 7,000 years long (6x7,000=42,000).
*** it-1 p. 594 Day ***
The entire period of the six time units or creative “days” dedicated to the preparation of planet Earth is summed up in one all-embracing “day” at Genesis 2:4:
(Genesis 2:4) This is a history of the heavens and the earth in the time they were created, in the day that Jehovah God made earth and heaven.
So, for all you know, Satan thought that a day to Jehovah was 42,000 years long, or at least 7,000! Where would Satan have gotten the idea that a day to Jehovah is only 1,000 years, or as you say, only 24 hours??
Somehow, you don't make it sound like your "ministry" is based on faith in God and love of God and neighbor. By going through the machinations to calculate the number of hours Jesus might have been dead, I was hoping you would catch on that this is all just pure speculation and has nothing to do with the Christian objective:
(1 Timothy 1:4-7) . . .Such things end up in nothing useful but merely give rise to speculations rather than providing anything from God in connection with faith. 5 Really, the objective of this instruction is love out of a clean heart and out of a good conscience and out of faith without hypocrisy. 6 By deviating from these things, some have been turned aside to meaningless talk. 7 They want to be teachers of law, but they do not understand either the things they are saying or the things they insist on so strongly.

This is a basic teaching my dear... we all understand this.... It is just hard to apply it in the way you do by using the scriptures you apply this principle to.  One cannot take a random concept and apply it. 

Agreed. We must be careful that we do not fall into the trap of Numerology. 

Now that depends what you mean by the congregation.  In truth the Congregation is only the 144,000 but the term congregation has been misused to represent everyone serving God in one particular way. 

If we use Matthew, Mark, Luke (but not John) we see that Jesus died around 3pm on Friday, just before Sabbath, which would have started around 7:30pm close to Nisan 14. (The Jewish calendar, as you know, starts the new day at sundown.) Jesus remained in the grave the entire Sabbath day (Saturday), and sometime Sunday morning, the women came to the grave and found the body missing, signifying that Jesus had already been raised up.
At a minimum, therefore, Jesus had therefore been dead for at least 4.5 hours on Friday. Then then entire 24 hours on Saturday. And anywhere from 0 hours to 11 hours on Sunday. Assuming he had been raised during the night watch, or no later than around 6am on Sunday when the women came to the grave. (7:30pm to 6:30am is 11 hours). If we assume, for argument's sake, about half way into the overnight watch, then Jesus was raised around 1:30am.
So 4/24ths + 24/24ths +6/24 = 34/24ths. (=1+10/24ths) So Jesus was in the grave for around, we could guess, the equivalent of 1.4 days. If you decided to multiply that by 1000 years (per day) you would get only 1,400 years. If you tried to be accurate you could not get less than 1.1875days or 1,188 years and not more than 1.64 days or 1,640 years.
Of course, you are using Hosea to give you the excuse to round off all of this to two days. (So that you can add exactly 2,000 years to 33CE.) But the Greek Scriptures already round off the number of days to 3, since it was parts of 3 days (even if only a small part of Friday, and a small part of Sunday). This is why the parallel to Jonah was made (where Jonah was in the "grave" for three days). 
I don't see where you find the right to round off to two days in the "grave" if the Bible rounds to three days, and it was literally only about a day-and-a-half from 3pm Friday to 6am Sunday.
This whole thing reminds me of the assumption Russell once published, that because the Bible says Abraham's sacrifice of a bird was a "young bird" that the bird can be assumed to be "one year old" and he therefore it was turned into exactly 360 years, using a day for a year and multiplying the year times 360.
To me, all this seems like you are taking extreme liberties with statements of the Bible that have already been fulfilled, and you are trying to push another fulfillment onto them. I also agree with Arauna that the entire idea of using Jesus' death and resurrection to create a new prophecy does not seem correct. It seems presumptuous to base a prediction of a new prophecy onto one that the Bible says was fulfilled.

Please explain the difference between the first part of that scripture and the second part. After all there is an "AND" between the two parts so we should be able to understand both the first portion AND the second portion.
The first part says that one day with Jehovah is as a thousand years. That should be pretty easy. It would mean that one 24-hour day to a man is like 1000-years with Jehovah. Obviously it doesn't mean that Jehovah is 365,000 times slower than humans (as some people consider slowness). Perhaps it could imply that Jehovah can easily manage 1,000 years worth of heavenly accomplishments in a human's 24-hour period of earthly doings.
Then the second part seems to say the opposite: that 1,000 years of human, earthly doings is like only one day to Jehovah. It's mostly the second part of the verse that Peter is apparently using to show why that final judgment parousia had not begun yet, and why people were already, in those last days, ridiculing the parousia expectations during that first century.
But when we take both those ideas together, we see that it is really saying that Jehovah is outside of human time restrictions. It's not about giving us a formula that only relies on the second part of the verse. We can't just select only the part that seems useful to our theories. We have to take the whole Bible, where both these statements are true:
24 hours seems like 1,000 years to Jehovah   (1:365,000) 1,000 years seems like 24 hours to Jehovah   (365,000:1)

If we use Matthew, Mark, Luke (but not John) we see that Jesus died around 3pm on Friday, just before Sabbath, which would have started around 7:30pm close to Nisan 14. (The Jewish calendar, as you know, starts the new day at sundown.) Jesus remained in the grave the entire Sabbath day (Saturday), and sometime Sunday morning, the women came to the grave and found the body missing, signifying that Jesus had already been raised up.
At a minimum, therefore, Jesus had therefore been dead for at least 4.5 hours on Friday. Then then entire 24 hours on Saturday. And anywhere from 0 hours to 11 hours on Sunday. Assuming he had been raised during the night watch, or no later than around 6am on Sunday when the women came to the grave. (7:30pm to 6:30am is 11 hours). If we assume, for argument's sake, about half way into the overnight watch, then Jesus was raised around 1:30am.
So 4/24ths + 24/24ths +6/24 = 34/24ths. (=1+10/24ths) So Jesus was in the grave for around, we could guess, the equivalent of 1.4 days. If you decided to multiply that by 1000 years (per day) you would get only 1,400 years. If you tried to be accurate you could not get less than 1.1875days or 1,188 years and not more than 1.64 days or 1,640 years.
Of course, you are using Hosea to give you the excuse to round off all of this to two days. (So that you can add exactly 2,000 years to 33CE.) But the Greek Scriptures already round off the number of days to 3, since it was parts of 3 days (even if only a small part of Friday, and a small part of Sunday). This is why the parallel to Jonah was made (where Jonah was in the "grave" for three days). 
I don't see where you find the right to round off to two days in the "grave" if the Bible rounds to three days, and it was literally only about a day-and-a-half from 3pm Friday to 6am Sunday.
This whole thing reminds me of the assumption Russell once published, that because the Bible says Abraham's sacrifice of a bird was a "young bird" that the bird can be assumed to be "one year old" and he therefore it was turned into exactly 360 years, using a day for a year and multiplying the year times 360.
To me, all this seems like you are taking extreme liberties with statements of the Bible that have already been fulfilled, and you are trying to push another fulfillment onto them. I also agree with Arauna that the entire idea of using Jesus' death and resurrection to create a new prophecy does not seem correct. It seems presumptuous to base a prediction of a new prophecy onto one that the Bible says was fulfilled.

Please explain the difference between the first part of that scripture and the second part. After all there is an "AND" between the two parts so we should be able to understand both the first portion AND the second portion.
The first part says that one day with Jehovah is as a thousand years. That should be pretty easy. It would mean that one 24-hour day to a man is like 1000-years with Jehovah. Obviously it doesn't mean that Jehovah is 365,000 times slower than humans (as some people consider slowness). Perhaps it could imply that Jehovah can easily manage 1,000 years worth of heavenly accomplishments in a human's 24-hour period of earthly doings.
Then the second part seems to say the opposite: that 1,000 years of human, earthly doings is like only one day to Jehovah. It's mostly the second part of the verse that Peter is apparently using to show why that final judgment parousia had not begun yet, and why people were already, in those last days, ridiculing the parousia expectations during that first century.
But when we take both those ideas together, we see that it is really saying that Jehovah is outside of human time restrictions. It's not about giving us a formula that only relies on the second part of the verse. We can't just select only the part that seems useful to our theories. We have to take the whole Bible, where both these statements are true:
24 hours seems like 1,000 years to Jehovah   (1:365,000) 1,000 years seems like 24 hours to Jehovah   (365,000:1)

Please explain the difference between the first part of that scripture and the second part. After all there is an "AND" between the two parts so we should be able to understand both the first portion AND the second portion.
The first part says that one day with Jehovah is as a thousand years. That should be pretty easy. It would mean that one 24-hour day to a man is like 1000-years with Jehovah. Obviously it doesn't mean that Jehovah is 365,000 times slower than humans (as some people consider slowness). Perhaps it could imply that Jehovah can easily manage 1,000 years worth of heavenly accomplishments in a human's 24-hour period of earthly doings.
Then the second part seems to say the opposite: that 1,000 years of human, earthly doings is like only one day to Jehovah. It's mostly the second part of the verse that Peter is apparently using to show why that final judgment parousia had not begun yet, and why people were already, in those last days, ridiculing the parousia expectations during that first century.
But when we take both those ideas together, we see that it is really saying that Jehovah is outside of human time restrictions. It's not about giving us a formula that only relies on the second part of the verse. We can't just select only the part that seems useful to our theories. We have to take the whole Bible, where both these statements are true:
24 hours seems like 1,000 years to Jehovah   (1:365,000) 1,000 years seems like 24 hours to Jehovah   (365,000:1)

I took a look again at the yellow signs posted above just to make sure, and I did not see anything about any dates whatsoever.
I believe it is you who are missing the point, conflating at least two or more completely different ideas.
I would say but let’s say that the number is 120, OK well you can use the formula “a year for a day“ and multiply the 120 x 365 days in a year. Then you take that number and multiply by 1000 because  “ A day with the Lord is as 1000 years and a 1000 years is a day“, and what do you get?
You get 43,800,000 YEARS!
AND HERE IS THE PROOF, PRODUCED ON THE FINEST CALCULATOR THE EARTH HAS EVER PRODUCED!!!!!!!!!


 
so, looking at the above absolute proof verified by the finest calculator ever made, what does it all mean?
ABSOLUTELY NOTHING !