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Shiwiii

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Everything posted by Shiwiii

  1. In the appendix of that same book under "Jehovah", Mr. Beduhn states that there is no justification of inserting "Jehovah" in the New Testament. He even goes as far to state that the wt uses the J papers/letters inappropriately as support for their insertion, when the J papers are just another translation. "Having concluded that the NWT is one of the most accurate English translations of the New Testament currently available, I would be remiss if I did not mention one peculiarity of this translation that by most conventions of translation would be considered an inaccuracy, however little this inaccuracy changes the meaning of most of the verses where it appears. I am referring to the use of "Jehovah" in the NWT New Testament. "Jehovah" (or "Yahweh" or some other reconstruction of the divine name consisting of the four consonants YHWH) is the personal name of God used more than six thousand times in the original Hebrew of the Old Testament. But the name never appears in any Greek manuscript of any book of the New Testament. So, to introduce the name "Jehovah" into the New Testament, as the NWT does two-hundred-thirty-seven times, is not accurate translation by the most basic principle of accuracy: adherence to the original Greek text. (p. 169)"
  2. Again, you are referring to the Old Testament which does nothing to support the insertion of YHWH into the New Testament! http://www.deadseascrolls.org.il/
  3. but what you are doing is creating a strawman argument. The Tetragrammaton is NEVER found in the ancient Greek New Testament manuscripts.
  4. If you do then you have somehow managed to keep this from the rest of the world which would carry with it plenty of skepticism.
  5. You do realize that the Septuagint is just the OT right? It is NEVER found in the Greek New Testament manuscripts.
  6. Then why does the earliest manuscripts state "Father , Son and Holy Spirit" ? Do you happen to have a manuscript that predates all others which supports your claim?
  7. Where is your support for this thinking? That's all I am asking. I disagree with you based on scripture, but I want to see your supporting evidence if you are going to make such a claim.
  8. I'm not saying He couldn't, I'm saying He didn't. The points He made about those false doctrines with the people around Him were the truth and it shined the light in the error of their ways. Jesus does not mislead nor deceive.
  9. True, but never did He deceive or mislead. Gobbly gook, none of what you just stated has anything to do with the topic at hand. Your first statement has yet to be supported with anything you mention.
  10. You fail to support your claim that being absent from the body in 2 Cor 5 is being absent from the "body of Christ".
  11. You must be joking right? JWInsider just showed you the error of your statement. Matt 5:29-30, Matt 10:28, Matt 11:23, Matt 16:18, Matt 18:9, Matt 23:33, Mark 9:43-47, Luke 10:15, Luke 12:5 That would be dishonest, wrong and very misleading, would it not? Not something the Son of God would do. So the answer to your question would be that He did not use false doctrine. It is only the perception and opinion of men that credit dishonesty with Jesus.
  12. of course it is, that's why I stated it. 1 Cor 12 is completely against your claim of this: Nowhere does 2 Cor 5 state "body of Christ" nor imply that. Not sure what the rest of what you wrote has anything to do with the conversation but its your topic, you can on on any tangent you'd like.
  13. That wasn't the question, the question was what did Jesus say about hell. This is where this conversation should start.
  14. What did Jesus say about hell was my question. Your topic was about hell and would I like to learn more, so I am asking what did Jesus say about hell. If we are to follow Christ Jesus, then His word should be what we are looking to.
  15. So then at that point, as the scriptures say, one would be present with the Lord. Is that how you see it or does the scripture say something different to you? 2 Cor 5: We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body and to be present with the Lord. The verse does not say that we would be absent from the "Body of Christ" while here on Earth, if that were the case then it would not harmonize with the view of 1 Corinthians 12.
  16. How does one become absent from the body? As in 2 Cor 5, specifically verses 6-8.
  17. Interesting topic and one that should be discussed. Some will say "yes it matters!" and that one MUST use the name Yahweh/Jehovah/Allah etc. The truth of the matter is that NO ONE knows the true pronunciation anymore. All of the names we use are man made names at this point, some just predate others and have been used longer. The inclusion of the name Allah in the question opens this topic up to different forms of belief/religion based on books other than the Bible. So this has splinter-thread all over it. Back to the question, I personally do not have to use any name. I can use a title, a name, or thought of character in my mind. Since most of us here believe in the Bible (not always the same Bible, but none the less), then we KNOW that God can read hearts (Acts 1:24, Acts 15:18, Romans 8:27). This justifies to me that it is not a name that makes my prayers heard, but who I am praying to with my heart. I do not believe that a prayer said without a name can be intercepted, to me that is nonsense.
  18. I think the question needs to be rephrased because anyone has the right to interpret a Bible teaching, it is more a question of do you subscribe to that interpretation. Do I subscribe to the teachings of the gb? NO
  19. That is truly funny. If everyone here is an apostate why ARE you here? You've already admitted you are not really loyal anyway. So does this make you also an apostate? You are not adhering to the orgs rules as required and thus apostatizing from their orders.
  20. It is ignorance to not know what the other position is. You THINK you know, but actually do not because you have chosen to believe what your told instead of what you know.
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